Why Catholic
Church practice Celibacy. The practice was mandated in order to keep its priests from having familial attachments which made nepotism attractive....
In the early
Middle Ages, however, movements for celibacy gained momentum and it became a
requirement by the 12th century.
Priestly celibacy is only canon law, or a man-made rule, and not church dogma or doctrine. Celibacy didn't even exist in early Christianity, with several early popes, bishops, and priests marrying and fathering children during the church's first three centuries.
Priestly celibacy is only canon law, or a man-made rule, and not church dogma or doctrine. Celibacy didn't even exist in early Christianity, with several early popes, bishops, and priests marrying and fathering children during the church's first three centuries.
The first
official church statements requiring celibacy appeared at the Councils of
Elvira (A.D. 306) and Carthage (A.D. 390), although clerical celibacy, to a
lesser degree, definitely predated these councils.
The Church was a thousand years old before it definitively took a stand in favor of celibacy in the twelfth century at the Second Lateran Council held in 1139, when a rule was approved forbidding priests to marry. In 1563, the Council of Trent reaffirmed the tradition of celibacy..........way many years after Church's existence .Fact: Priests and even popes still continued to marry and have children for several hundred years after that date. In fact, the Eastern Catholic Church still has married priests.
The Church was a thousand years old before it definitively took a stand in favor of celibacy in the twelfth century at the Second Lateran Council held in 1139, when a rule was approved forbidding priests to marry. In 1563, the Council of Trent reaffirmed the tradition of celibacy..........way many years after Church's existence .Fact: Priests and even popes still continued to marry and have children for several hundred years after that date. In fact, the Eastern Catholic Church still has married priests.
Ultimately, though, celibacy became the
official requirement of the Roman Catholic Church due to the practice of
nepotism. Church leaders were giving their children positions in the church,
despite a lack of any qualifications or training. Further, church leaders were
giving church property to their descendants. As a result, the Roman Catholic
Church mandated celibacy in order to keep its priests from having familial
attachments which made nepotism attractive.
Is celibacy Biblical ?
According to Catholic doctrine, Peter was the “first pope.” And, since popes are considered to be Peter’s successors and keepers of Petrine tradition, one would expect them to follow Peter’s example in every aspect—including the acceptance or rejection of celibacy. Matthew 8:14-15 records that Jesus healed one of Peter’s relatives. This relative was none other than his mother-in-law. The text states, “Now when Jesus had come into Peter’s house, He saw his wife’s mother lying sick with a fever” . Some have tried to argue that this lady was the mother-in-law of another disciple—not Peter. However, the grammar of the text in Matthew (and in the parallel records of Mark and Luke) is very clear when it says that Jesus came to Peter’s house and saw his mother-in-law ( Mark 1:30; Luke 4:38). The only conclusion from a straightforward reading of the text is that if Jesus saw Peter’s mother-in-law, then Peter had a wife!
According to Catholic doctrine, Peter was the “first pope.” And, since popes are considered to be Peter’s successors and keepers of Petrine tradition, one would expect them to follow Peter’s example in every aspect—including the acceptance or rejection of celibacy. Matthew 8:14-15 records that Jesus healed one of Peter’s relatives. This relative was none other than his mother-in-law. The text states, “Now when Jesus had come into Peter’s house, He saw his wife’s mother lying sick with a fever” . Some have tried to argue that this lady was the mother-in-law of another disciple—not Peter. However, the grammar of the text in Matthew (and in the parallel records of Mark and Luke) is very clear when it says that Jesus came to Peter’s house and saw his mother-in-law ( Mark 1:30; Luke 4:38). The only conclusion from a straightforward reading of the text is that if Jesus saw Peter’s mother-in-law, then Peter had a wife!
" Forbidding to marry “is condemned in
the Bible as a "doctrine of demons"(1T 4:1-3). What of celibacy of
priests.
If a
celibacy requirement is a "doctrine of demons". (1 Timothy 4:1-3),
how can the Roman Catholic doctrine requiring priests to be unmarried be
anything but unbiblical and evil?
Personally,
I don't care if Catholic Priests marry or not. But my question is how the late
tradition (A.D. 1200's some say) decided by human authorities can override a
clear command of scripture condemning such a rule for believers? "
Some
worrying statistics.....
In 2003,
more than 160 priests in the Milwaukee Archdiocese in Wisconsin signed a letter
supporting married clergy......and the situation worsening unless a human rule be changed again ?
Early
Christianity had no formal ban on marriage. The Bible mentions St. Peter’s
mother-in-law and many scholars suggest other apostles had wives — as well as
at least some popes, such as the 9th-century Hadrian II.
Most groups
estimate the Roman Catholic Church has lost 100,000 to 150,000 clergy around
the world who left the active priesthood to marry. The church considers them
outcasts.
If a man desire the office of a bishop ( a church elder), he desireth a good work. It behoveth therefore a bishop to be blameless, the husband of one wife, sober, prudent, of good behavior, chaste, given to hospitality, a teacher, Not given to wine, no striker, but modest, not quarrelsome, not covetous, but One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all chastity. But if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?" (1Timothy 3:1-5...... also quoted by the Catholic Douay-Rheims bible).
